Did God possess infinite knowledge to make all things?

6

‎Monday, ‎February ‎16, ‎2015
Were made in his image…
In the beginning, God supposedly created the heaven and the earth. The bible goes on to describe the order of events in which God created everything known to man. But what of the things presumed to have existed prior to all that we know? When and how were they created, or even? Outside of the entirety of the universe in its infinite reaches, we are only told of 1 other thing prior to all that was supposedly created. The angels. The bible fails to mention the origin of the mighty messengers of God. Were they always in existence, like God? If so, would their existence be that of equal status to God, having no beginning? If so, what would differentiate the pecking order between them and God? Would all of the attributes of God not be present in the angels, as well? What would propel God to a higher status and lower them to that of servants?

Omniscience? Did God possess infinite knowledge while the angels were lacking? The answer would have to undeniably be ‘yes’, otherwise they would have known of their own temptation, fall, and damnation. Would an all knowing mind allow this to play out, thus condemning themselves?

Omnipotent? With unlimited power and authority, one would be equal to God. One would never be lowered to servant status or be cast out of where they existed.

Omnipresence? The bible gives examples of angels inability to be everywhere at once, so this would definitely give God the upper status.

Eternal? If they were incapable of preventing themselves from being damned to hellfire then an eternal existence would not be possible.

Aseity? This refers to the property by which a being exists in and of itself, from itself, or exists as so-and-such of and from itself. Would they fall under this category? If they existed solely by their own means then nothing could have power or authority over them.

Holy? Could someone or something capable of being unholy exist in the same realm, as God? If they were supposedly cast out for their lacking then one must assume the answer to be ‘no’.

Genesis 1:26 reads- And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness . . .
[‘Our image.’ (Hebrew) tselem. Pronounced tseh’-lem. To shade; a phantom, that is (figuratively) illusion, resemblance]
Written in a plural sense.
[‘after our likeness.’ (Hebrew) d’muth. Pronounced dem-ooth. Resemblance; concretely model, shape’ adverbially like fashion]

Also written in a plural sense. So man is presumed to have been created in the resemblance and likeness of more than one being. Many believe God to be 1 in 3. 1 being with 3 different entities or characteristics. Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Would the angels be included in the ‘our image’ category? If they possessed not the qualifications to be an equal with God, then surely they were excluded in the ‘our image’ portion of creating man. If they were indeed excluded because of being an inferior entity, I ask you, why was man supposedly created in the image and likeness of only perfection, excluding the influence of known imperfection, yet when man supposedly failed it was of our own imperfect accord? If you exclude imperfection in the creating process, how can perfection create imperfection? Is it possible that man was supposedly created by imperfection? If known imperfection already existed, and nothing is present that was not supposedly created by perfection . . . why is man supposedly guilty of the imperfections in which they were supposedly created with. The clay is guilty for the mistakes of the molder? Should an inferior clay be condemned for being supposedly created inferior?

Food for thought.

(F-bombs and obscenities only shows one’s ignorance and limited vocabulary)

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